Yet again,
the material we’ve learned in this class has overlapped with that of CS Lewis. We
were assigned Lewis’s The Great Divorce,
which is a fantasy novella of sorts in which Lewis attempts to depict what
heaven and hell are like (I highly suggest giving this a read – the literary
features alone are enough of a reason without regard to the text’s embedded
theology). A narrator – whom we can assume to be Lewis – is taken on a bus from
“hell” to “heaven”, where he then witnesses multiple accounts of angels trying
to convince the hell-folk to leave their world behind and join the heavenly
host. At the end of the work, when it seems that a grand judgment is taking
place, the narrator is awakened; the entirety of his experience had been a
dream.
As a
Professor/Don of English at Oxford, and later the chair of Medieval and
Renaissance Literature at Cambridge, it is not at all a jump to assume that
Lewis was well aware and well learned in the “dream vision”. We saw examples of
the “dream vision” in “The Dream of the Rood” and Piers Plowman. Just as a refresher, many authors writing on the
subject of Christianity would guise their personal interpretations,
disagreements, or commentary under a “dream vision” in order to avoid
persecution; a character falls asleep and receives visions or revelations that
are clearly of the author’s own making rather than the character’s. However, if
an author was met with persecution, he would be defended by the fact that his
arguments are not actually his own, but his dreaming character.
I wonder why Lewis wrote The Great Divorce in this manner. What
is it that Lewis is ‘protecting’ himself from by using the “dream vision”? Perhaps
he is trying to reinforce the fact (as he asserts multiple times in other
works) that he is only a layman offering his own opinion on divine matters. And
this would eliminate the possibility for the ‘wrath’ of other Christians for
holding opposing theological views, as well as the wrath of God for spreading
falsity/error. He is, in essence, covering all his bases by using the “dream
vision”; he is trying to reveal to the reader that his idea of heaven and hell
is not the ultimate truth, thus preventing persecution from possible errors he
made in the text.
I think that Lewis wrote The Great Divorce in that manner because he was trying to find a metaphorical way (perhaps the best way?) to talk about heaven and hell. (Never an easy sell.) Right?
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